1) Ex 61 on page 154
Tooth 1.4 has pulp necrosis+acute periradicular abscess with swelling on buccal vestibule. The question is which anesthetic technique would be appropriate to achieve anesthesia for the extraction of tooth 14?
The answer is Infraorbital nerve block + greater palatine nerve block.
My question is - can we choose palatine infiltration for this patient as swelling and infection are on buccal side instead of greater palatine nerve block?
2) The table on page 153
In the table max dose of prilocaine is 500 mg and the maximum number of cartridges is 8.
But when we calculate 500mg / 72 = 6.9
How do we reach number 8?
We discussed this thoroughly and we decided to go with Greater palatine block only in such cases for the following reason You have to set your thinking to match the examiner and the system they use to mark you. Lets break it down. If there's a buccal abscess, then you know they definitely do NOT want you to answer infiltration, right? And that option will be (-1), agree? So your'e choosing block for buccal anesthesia
Lets go to palatal, clinically, you can definitely give palatal infiltration, but choosing this in the exam, how will you convey to the examiner/marking system that you chose it for the palatal anesthesia? Remember, Infiltration in the template whether palatal or buccal is listed in one option only - Supraperiosteal/Paraperiosteal infiltration.
which we have already discussed above that it will be marked as a negative, because they will down-mark you for choosing it where an abscess exists
1) Its a safe option as well. Palatal infiltration is totally okay in this case
2) Why were you dividing be 72? Assuming its 4%